With all the knowledge and experience out here, I'd like you folks' opinion regarding the following scenario:
I was day charge over this past weekend on my floor (Med/Surg-Tele). In taking report from night charge, I learned Saturday that one pt had an 0600 blood sugar of 48 and was given OJ w/sugar. I became a bit upset (this happens all the time) because 1.) our hospital has a standing protocol for all blood sugars below 70: give an amp of D50 and call the doc.; 2.) breakfast doesn't hit the floor until 0800 unless called for earlier, and it rarely is even in these cases; 3.) I've seen pts drop from 60's to 20's in 1/2 hour even with OJ and food, and you can't tell if this pt is one of those. Anyway, night charge basically brushed it off with "pt states she's always this low in the am," and "the OJ worked." (Pt was 68 one hour later.)
On Sunday, same pt was 42, and the same scenario occurred. Night charge and I got into a debate regarding blood sugar management, my opinion being I'd rather push the D50 and spend the rest of the day bringing her down, hers being that D50 was "overkill." (For the record, insulin was being adjusted incrementally.)
I was off Monday, but upon returning to work Wednesday I learned that Monday 0600 pt blood sugar was 36 & OJ was given (AGAIN) because she "was alert and talking." Within 1/2 hour, pt was unresponsive and CODED with a blood sugar of 22!!! Luckily, pt was brought around and as of Friday was still in ICU. Same night charge was on.
I'm angry because I believe we could have avoided putting this poor woman through this life-threatening situation, and I feel vindicated in my opinion because of what happened, but I suppose this could have been an isolated case....what do you think?