Hi everyone,
Any advice/responses on this topic would be appreciated!
I recently had a patient who was admitted for a GI bleed. The patient was AO x 4; however, she had her mother as her POA. The patient was in need of a blood transfusion, initially, she was refusing and not wanting to sign the consent for a blood transfusion. After informing the doctor of the patients refusal, the doctor stated that the blood transfusion could still be started by having the POA sign the consent.
Am I crazy, or is this incorrect? From my experience, I always thought that the POA only took over when the patient was unable to make these decisions on their own? The patient was oriented, but did have a long history of mental health disorders. Ultimately, the patient decided to sign the consent on her own, but I am still left wondering, was I wrong for believing that the patient still had the right to refuse a transfusion????