Published
In my neck of the woods, she would be sent up to OB where we would do an exam and find her cervix to be, in fact, closed. Some of our ER docs are famously bad at cervical checks! LOL
I am trying to think of a real answer to your question. I assumed the test was urine, since the patient said she had done the same test that morning. HCG levels should still be high enough to make the test positive. Can her urine be too dilute to register HCG for some reason? There probably is something that I'm totally not thinking of...
I saw this post and was very curious as well. I did some searches and came across this article.
http://www.ispub.com/ostia/index.php?xmlFilePath=journals/ijgo/vol6n2/test.xml
This woman had many factors contribute to why she was having a negative test.
For the most part I found that the only reason could be that the test was stored in the wrong temperature or some how the test was not done correctly. The only other thing, like others mentioned, was that the urine was diluted. I read that after 12 weeks the HCG goes down but should still register on an OTC test. Interesting post.
Well, actually hcg falls off as pregnancy proceeds, not goes up. down to the point where an hcg test would read negative at term......pregnancy should be ruled in our out by u/s at this point, not a urine or blood test.
You see, hcg is present in early pregnancy, in order to preserve the pregnancy in early gestation. Once the placenta is fully functioning and "takes over" maintaining the the pregnancy (over the corpus luteum) hcg falls off gradually.
Add to that any thyroid issues, and you can really have a big drop in hcg, fast.......
This is my understanding of how it works, anyhow.
Here is a link detailing HCG levels in pregnancy. It looks like that although they level off they are still incredibly high at the end of pregnancy.
http://www.americanpregnancy.org/duringpregnancy/hcglevels.html
Dani8962
28 Posts
i am currently taking my a&pii classes for my nursing pre-reqs. we have weekly discussion questions and this one has me completely stumped. i have researched and also asked my own gyn - he did not know either. please help!!!
an obese woman reports to the er with complaints of gas pains. after carefully examination, the er physician calls for a pregnancy test which came back negative. the woman insisted it was a waste of time as she performed the same test earlier that same morning. further observation caused the physician to check for dilation of the cervix which measured 8 cm. briefly describe a physiological explanation for this occurance.
now i am assuming that the pregnancy test at the hospital would have been a blood test. can the blood test be false? is she really pregnant and ready to deliver the baby and not know she was pregnant or is there another medical reason the cervix could dilate without pregnancy?
any help would be appreciated.
frantic nursing student
danielle