I work as a CNM in a hospital with a pretty high rate of induction of labor, due to the high-risk population we serve. Tons of diabetics, hypertensives, obesity, other co-morbidities. However, despite these factors, I think we do a pretty good job with the induction process itself, and very rarely have C/S due to failed progress of an induction. We only do cervical ripening with Cytotec or a Foley balloon, due to the cost of Cervadil. Our guidelines about cervical ripening say we continue it until the patient has a Bishop's score of 6, at which time we start Pit (if needed).
Yesterday I was flipping through the channels, caught an episode of "16 and Pregnant," (yes, yes, I know, total trash, but to me it's sort of like a car crash, can't look away!) right as the teen mom was heading into the hospital to be induced (I missed the reason as to why). When she gets to the hospital, they don't say what her lady partsl exam is, but they start her right on Pit. I thought that was odd, but thought maybe she already had a favorable cervix. Then they show her 4 hours later being examined by her doctor, who said she'd now progressed to 2 cms. So she definitely wasn't favorable and got no cervical ripening, unless she had a Foley balloon at the same time or something, and they failed to mention it (we don't use that method of cervical ripening, but I've heard of it being done).
So it got me thinking---how many hospitals out there have providers inducing people with no cervical ripening? Do you see this often? I know that, unlike where I work, at an all-private hospital, providers kind of do whatever they want, but I don't really know why they would proceed right off the bat with Pit when we know how important cervical ripening is in the induction process. Just impatience? Don't believe the research?
Hello OB nurses,
I work as a CNM in a hospital with a pretty high rate of induction of labor, due to the high-risk population we serve. Tons of diabetics, hypertensives, obesity, other co-morbidities. However, despite these factors, I think we do a pretty good job with the induction process itself, and very rarely have C/S due to failed progress of an induction. We only do cervical ripening with Cytotec or a Foley balloon, due to the cost of Cervadil. Our guidelines about cervical ripening say we continue it until the patient has a Bishop's score of 6, at which time we start Pit (if needed).
Yesterday I was flipping through the channels, caught an episode of "16 and Pregnant," (yes, yes, I know, total trash, but to me it's sort of like a car crash, can't look away!) right as the teen mom was heading into the hospital to be induced (I missed the reason as to why). When she gets to the hospital, they don't say what her lady partsl exam is, but they start her right on Pit. I thought that was odd, but thought maybe she already had a favorable cervix. Then they show her 4 hours later being examined by her doctor, who said she'd now progressed to 2 cms. So she definitely wasn't favorable and got no cervical ripening, unless she had a Foley balloon at the same time or something, and they failed to mention it (we don't use that method of cervical ripening, but I've heard of it being done).
So it got me thinking---how many hospitals out there have providers inducing people with no cervical ripening? Do you see this often? I know that, unlike where I work, at an all-private hospital, providers kind of do whatever they want, but I don't really know why they would proceed right off the bat with Pit when we know how important cervical ripening is in the induction process. Just impatience? Don't believe the research?
Just curious---what do you guys see?