Published
I've taken many BP's "by hand" and gotten diastolics
As to how I would defend myself in court, take out your Estes or Bates book on the correct procedure for taking BP, and cite articles on aortic regurg. I wouldn't even worry about defedning yourself in this way, there IS nothing to defend!! As you already know Matt. Sounds like this guy needs meds! We used to have a pediatric cardioligist who insisted that kids who were quite obviously having seizures, were NOT having seizures, they were just in a "state of agitated motion." Yes, this guy had to guy for psych counseling eventually, he was so nuts, he even scared administration!
This is purely hypothetical, but a question I want to bring up after reading some of your answers.
Assume a doc wrote an order to maintain SBP>100. The SBP stays above 100 for several shifts, but because of diastolic BP, the MAP stays in the 50s. Pt. goes into renal failure a couple of days later and the family sues.
Is the nurse liable for not notifying the doc of the low MAP even though the parameters were maintained? I would say yes.
Any other thoughts?
I would agree. Someone is liable for the man's renal failure.
However, I'm trying to think of a BP where the SBP would be greater than 100 and the MAP at 50. Even if the SBP is 100 and the DBP is 40, the MAP is still 60. If the DBP is 30 and the SBP is 100, the MAP is still 53.
I'm trying to remember if I have ever seen such a situation in my clinical practice, and I don't think I have. If an individuals DBP is that low, the SBP is low as well.
But then again, the situation was hypthetical.
I have seen such a situation in my limited clinical cardiac experience. Wide variability in the pulse pressure (relatively low normal systolic, diastolic in 20's and 30's) can occur with disorders involving the aortic valve, namely aortic regurgitation. Also have noticed in such cases, if you take the blood pressure on the LEFT arm, it will be quite lower than the same on the RIGHT. I have always been told that it is the MAP that matters most--that as long as the MAP is 60 or above, the organs are being perfused. However, I have seen some patients who "live" with a MAP in the 50's.
Apparently this "cardilogist" has never heard of aortic insufficiency? He'd probably be stupid enough to put an IABP in a patient like this! Tell The doc "If it were to get to court, I would explain the dynamics of aortic insufficiency and that the result is a low DBP. You usually have a murmur with that condition that can be heard at the nurses station even if the patient is all the way down the hall." I look at the flowsheet during report and if I see a low DBP, I go in to assess my patient expecting to hear a murmur.
There are doctors like that in every hospital!
fedupnurse
mattcastens
255 Posts
We have a cardiologist who absolutely insists that it is impossible for a person to have a distolic blood pressure
I can handle the tirade (he just looks like an idiot), and we've written a policy to have us take one blood pressure by hand q 4 hours if we get a NIBP
My question is about his legal point. I know d**n well that a person can be alive with a diastolic that low (I've seen plenty). What can I say in response to his question, "How would you defend yourself in court?"