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I have several legally blind patients. Each has typical pupil response. Legally blind is usually corrected to 20/200 unless a patient had a neurological injury to the nerves that affected pupillary response it's possible of pupil reaction.
It depends whether the nerve that regulates pupillary constriction was affected by the injury or stroke which also blinded the person. You can be blind from an occipital stroke because your brain no longer processes input from your optic nerve, and have no problems with pupils reacting. You can infarct your retina or tear it all up or detach it from your optic nerve and still have intact pupillary reflexes. You can have a mechanical injury to the pupillary muscles and have little or no contractions, but be sighted in that eye.
What was the situation? Or was this an exam question that many people got wrong?
It depends on a lot of things. I have known patients who are blind with non-reactive pupils from optic pathway gliomas and have known patients who are blind with completely normal pupillary reaction. I've also known patients with sluggish or non-reactive pupils who were not legally blind.