In a discussion with some students recently a comment was made such as "it doesn't really matter whether patients are experiencing nociceptive or neuropathic pain - it's all pain anyway".
How can I outline a written response and coment on this including arguments for kep points that can be supported by the best available evidence from literature. How would I respond to this argument? They are both two very different pain types. Obviously age, psychosocial elements affect pain levels.