Published
In a discussion with some students recently a comment was made such as "it doesn't really matter whether patients are experiencing nociceptive or neuropathic pain - it's all pain anyway".
How can I outline a written response and coment on this including arguments for kep points that can be supported by the best available evidence from literature. How would I respond to this argument? They are both two very different pain types. Obviously age, psychosocial elements affect pain levels.
Lev, MSN, RN, NP
4 Articles; 2,805 Posts
I think it does matter. Different types of pain are treated differently. There are entire classes of drugs developed specially for neuropathic pain. Neuropathic pain in my experience is often hard to treat.