I'm 31 and have been working at my first RN job for 3 months. DH and I are ready to start trying for a baby and I think the timing is right since I'll get in that crucial first year of med-surg experience.
My question is about the the FMLA. According to the paperwork I got when I started I'm eligible for FMLA leave after I've worked full-time for 12 months. More specifically it says "Must have completed 12 consecutive months of employment prior to request" it also says that employees should provide the hospital with at least 30 days notice. What exactly does "prior to request" mean? Prior to the date you want to begin leave or prior to the date you hand in your application requesting leave?
If I were to have a due date in late November and my 1 year employment anniversary is in late October would I have trouble getting leave? I plan to work until 38 weeks or so, so I would request leave beginning, say, early-mid November, but given the 30 days notice, I would have to submit my formal application in early-mid October. I would have 12 months before I actually went on leave, but not 12 months by the time of my request. Does that make sense? Would this be a problem?
I don't want to call HR and ask because I feel like as a new hire they might not be thrilled about my plans. I could also just play it safe and wait another month before we start trying, but we've been married for 7 years and the biological alarm clock is ringing!!
FYI - obviously I will let my manager know about all this early in my second trimester so she has time to prepare, I'm just trying to figure out the leave part of it.
I'm grateful for any help you can give me on this!