A recent NY Times article described a study that found that hospital workers who entered a MRSA patient's room would end up with MRSA on the workers' clothes about 70% of the time, even if the worker never actually touched the patient.
My question to you: if MRSA is getting on our clothes, why does it only become part of the flora of some people's skins? ----Only about 32% of the U.S. population has staph aureus, and only about .8% is colonized with MRSA. --I understand that someone with an active MRSA infection is more likely to be immunocompromised. -Is someone who is MRSA-colonized, but is not manifesting an active MRSA infection immunocompromised or just unlucky or...? --Finally --this makes me wonder what the percentage of healthcare workers are who are colonized with stapa aureus and MRSA.
Thank you. Below find a reference supporting the staph and MRSA numbers as well as a link to the NY Times article mentioned above.
"Approximately 32% (89.4 million persons) and 0.8% (2.3 millions persons) of the U.S. population is colonized with S. aureus and MRSA respectively."
NY Times on MRSA and healthcare workers' clothes: