Published Mar 21, 2011
santina44
26 Posts
Hello all. I am doing a case study on a 28 yr old female with an acute subural hematoma. She has a history of seizures but they are well controlled with her medication.
It states that the neurosurgeon prescribes Codeine IV for pain.
The question is: why does the neurosurgeon prescribe Codeine?
Any thoughts are appreciated. Thanks!
SalemSN
4 Posts
The Dr. would not want to perscribe anything for pain that could mask neuro status. Hope that helps :)
turnforthenurse, MSN, NP
3,364 Posts
This, because then you can't properly assess them and if the patient is sedated from medication, that basically invalidates your neuro exam.
BacktotheBeach, ADN, BSN, RN
498 Posts
I'm just a beginning student, but my first thought was that morphine and demoral can increase intracranial pressure so that class of drugs would not be used for head injuries. Don't know if that would be a contraindication to subdural hematomas or not, but its something you could look into.
MunoRN, RN
8,058 Posts
Codeine is an opiate drug, not as strong as morphine but similar to hydrocodone (the opiate in vicoden). It can cause the same side effects as any other opiate, so prescribing codeine is really more of a Physicians preference than anything, making it an odd choice in this patient since codeine has been known to cause seizures, particularly when given IV.