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[sonik]

Hi everyone I was reviewing NCLEX questions from the Exam cram book & there was this question which read like this:

A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing mag. Sulfate. B/P is 160/80, Deep tendon reflexes are 1+, and Urinary output for the past hour is 100ml. The nurse should:

A. Continue the infusion of mag sulfate while monitoring the clients BP

B. Stop the infusion of Mag. Sulfate & contact the Physician

C. Slow the infusion rate & turn the client on her left side

D. Administer calcium gluconte & continue to monitor the BP

My choice was B because Looking @ the urinary output which is too much & also decreased deep tendon reflexes... ..I thought the infusion should be stopped.

I need some suggestions because I didn't understand why the correct answer was A.

Thank you all.

[cgreen0114]

Try this link, I did't have time to read through it...but it looks like it may have the answers you are looking for : ) Hope this helps.

http://cmapspublic.ihmc.us/rid=1190392629982_1846239176_11875/0884217504263145.pdf

[St_Claire, ADN, RN]

Per-eclampsia is defined as a systolic BP of 160 or higher or a diastolic BP of 110 or higher and proteinuria of 5 grams or more. Her BP is still elevated. Urine output of 100mL in one hour is a little low, the bare minimum is 30mL/hr. focus on her BP, it needs to go down.

Hope that helps.

[Ericad85]

I say B!!!!

[St_Claire, ADN, RN]

I say B!!!!

The op already stated the correct answer according to the book is A. Why would you choose B?

[ObieBrown]

yup A is the answer, BP is still high. DTR is still good. urine output is great for magnesium because they get excreted by the kidneys.