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  1. Hi everyone I was reviewing NCLEX questions from the Exam cram book & there was this question which read like this:

    A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing mag. Sulfate. B/P is 160/80, Deep tendon reflexes are 1+, and Urinary output for the past hour is 100ml. The nurse should:
    A. Continue the infusion of mag sulfate while monitoring the clients BP
    B. Stop the infusion of Mag. Sulfate & contact the Physician
    C. Slow the infusion rate & turn the client on her left side
    D. Administer calcium gluconte & continue to monitor the BP

    My choice was B because Looking @ the urinary output which is too much & also decreased deep tendon reflexes... ..I thought the infusion should be stopped.

    I need some suggestions because I didn't understand why the correct answer was A.
    Thank you all.
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    About sonik, LVN

    Joined: Jan '13; Posts: 32; Likes: 11


  3. by   cgreen0114
    Try this link, I did't have time to read through it...but it looks like it may have the answers you are looking for : ) Hope this helps.
  4. by   St_Claire
    Per-eclampsia is defined as a systolic BP of 160 or higher or a diastolic BP of 110 or higher and proteinuria of 5 grams or more. Her BP is still elevated. Urine output of 100mL in one hour is a little low, the bare minimum is 30mL/hr. focus on her BP, it needs to go down.

    Hope that helps.
  5. by   Ericad85
    I say B!!!!
  6. by   St_Claire
    Quote from Ericad85
    I say B!!!!
    The op already stated the correct answer according to the book is A. Why would you choose B?
  7. by   ObieBrown
    yup A is the answer, BP is still high. DTR is still good. urine output is great for magnesium because they get excreted by the kidneys.