This is summarized from a case I had yesterday. I present it just to tell you that 'med math' does matter and that you can't always rely on the pharmacy or an IV pump.Don't just get through the class, learn the topic... it matters.The patient is a 57 year old male with a priapism in its 40th hour of duration. The initial treatment plan is for the physician to administer up to three injections of phenylephrine into the man's penis. Each dose is 0.2 milligrams. What the pharmacy has supplied is a vial of phenylephrine, 10 milligrams in 1 milliliter. Your doc is very busy and is expecting you to supply him with what he needs in order to walk in to the room and do what needs doing.Here are your questions:1) What is the expected action of phenylephrine in this case?2) Does the use of phenylephrine give you any pause?3) What would you draw up?4) What type of needle would you supply?