Hi all. To give a little background I am a relatively new RN working the 11-7 shift at an inpatient psych unit. One of our jobs in the morning is to obtain any labs that the doctor has ordered. As I was reviewing orders, I saw an order to obtain a blood sample for HIV testing from a patient this morning. At our facility, we have a special consent form that is retained in the patients chart stating that the physician has spoken with them and they consent to being tested for HIV. This morning I asked the patient if the physician had spoken with them about me obtaining a blood sample. The patient stated that no the physician hadn't spoken with him and he hasn't talked to the physician in a couple of days. So I didn't draw the blood sample. During report I spoke with the physician and the physician states "Let's just tell him that it is for something different like a blood sugar or something." Apparently in my state, HIV testing can be obtained without consent for the purposes of diagnosis, treatment, or protection of health and safety according to the National Clinicians Consultation Center. But doesn't this seem like an ethical issue? I always thought that the physician was supposed to explain it to them and we were supposed to get the consent and answer any questions they may have. I guess I am just having trouble wrapping my mind around this and would appreciate any guidance.
Hi all. To give a little background I am a relatively new RN working the 11-7 shift at an inpatient psych unit. One of our jobs in the morning is to obtain any labs that the doctor has ordered. As I was reviewing orders, I saw an order to obtain a blood sample for HIV testing from a patient this morning. At our facility, we have a special consent form that is retained in the patients chart stating that the physician has spoken with them and they consent to being tested for HIV. This morning I asked the patient if the physician had spoken with them about me obtaining a blood sample. The patient stated that no the physician hadn't spoken with him and he hasn't talked to the physician in a couple of days. So I didn't draw the blood sample. During report I spoke with the physician and the physician states "Let's just tell him that it is for something different like a blood sugar or something." Apparently in my state, HIV testing can be obtained without consent for the purposes of diagnosis, treatment, or protection of health and safety according to the National Clinicians Consultation Center. But doesn't this seem like an ethical issue? I always thought that the physician was supposed to explain it to them and we were supposed to get the consent and answer any questions they may have. I guess I am just having trouble wrapping my mind around this and would appreciate any guidance.