Ok I am stuck on a question. A patient with COPD is on digoxin, decaDron (long term) and albuterol and beclovent inhalers. He has developed symptoms of Cushing's Syndrome. the question is:
"You inform the physician of J.S's assessment. The DR believes he has developed Cushing's Syndrome and decides to change his prescription from Decadron to Prednisone given on alternate days. Explain the rationale".
I'm thinking that both of these drugs are steroids and long term use of either one can lead to Cushing's Syndrome. I looked online and in my notes from class, and I can't figure it out. The only thing I'm thinking is that maybe it was given everyday before and maybe the DR switched it to be given QOD? And I know the reason for that: To allow the adrenals and pituitary to put out its own hormones on "rest" days, to avoid signs of dysfunction of both these glands when taken off the steroids. Now that I think about it, the doctor probably wants to wean the patient off the steroids so he can be taken off of them for good. I think I may have answered my own question, but I'm going to submit this anyway. Please help. I guess the question threw me off a little.
I just can't wait till the NCLEX!
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Ok I am stuck on a question. A patient with COPD is on digoxin, decaDron (long term) and albuterol and beclovent inhalers. He has developed symptoms of Cushing's Syndrome. the question is:
"You inform the physician of J.S's assessment. The DR believes he has developed Cushing's Syndrome and decides to change his prescription from Decadron to Prednisone given on alternate days. Explain the rationale".
I'm thinking that both of these drugs are steroids and long term use of either one can lead to Cushing's Syndrome. I looked online and in my notes from class, and I can't figure it out. The only thing I'm thinking is that maybe it was given everyday before and maybe the DR switched it to be given QOD? And I know the reason for that: To allow the adrenals and pituitary to put out its own hormones on "rest" days, to avoid signs of dysfunction of both these glands when taken off the steroids. Now that I think about it, the doctor probably wants to wean the patient off the steroids so he can be taken off of them for good. I think I may have answered my own question, but I'm going to submit this anyway. Please help. I guess the question threw me off a little.
I just can't wait till the NCLEX!