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I'm not sure why i thought it didn't make sense, maybe because we haven't been taught how to actually convert between opioid medications. But yeah, I just didn't understand how the number could be lower than 10. but if that is the answer that you guys are coming up with then it should be right? i tried working on it last night but gave up and then i looked at it again this morning and this is what I got. Thank you.
I'm not sure why i thought it didn't make sense, maybe because we haven't been taught how to actually convert between opioid medications. But yeah, I just didn't understand how the number could be lower than 10. but if that is the answer that you guys are coming up with then it should be right? i tried working on it last night but gave up and then i looked at it again this morning and this is what I got. Thank you.
Think of it this way: If the number is higher than 10, you will be giving more than 75mg/hr meperidine. Is the patient ordered to get more than 75?
but yeah, 3.33 sounds right.
Samm06, BSN, RN
126 Posts
Hello,
I am working on a calculation for changing from one IV opioid to another and maintaining approximate equal pain relief. I'm just having trouble figuring out if i'm setting up my equation correctly.
Question: If a patient is receiving meperidine 25 mg/hr via continuous IV drip, how much morphine IV/hr would be required for the same analgesic effect?
We have a chart that says meperidine 75 mg IV is equivalent to 10 mg IV for morphine sulfate.
So i set up my calculation as: 75 mg X 25 mg
-------- --------
10 mg X mg
75 (X) = 10 (25)
75 x = 250
x=3.33 mg/hr of morphine
This doesn't really seem right for me, but this is the most logical equation i can seem to come up with.... what do you guys think?