Do you consider 0-1 void overnight decreased urine output?

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Specializes in Telehealth, Hospice and Palliative Care.

In general, does it cause you any concern any if your pt. has 0 or 1 void on the 11-7 shift? I know that I never go overnight, but I am a camel:)

Thanks,

Cokeforbreakfast

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Specializes in Med/Surg GI/GU/GYN.

I work on a GI/GU/GYN floor and I, personally, don't consider 0-1 voids overnight decreased urine output...generally. If my patient has been voiding WNL during the day, I'm ok with that. Many people don't get up at all overnight at home, and if they do, they don't necessarily void a "normal" amount. If I have time, I try to get them up before I leave at 7:30 so I can check. That said, it does depend on the type of surgery or health history they have. Do they have a history of cardiac or renal disease? What meds are they taking? How much did they void during the earlier shifts? Did they recently have a foley removed & have they voided since? Do they usually get up at home? Are they getting IV fluids? Drinking enough? Could they be dehydrated? Do they feel like they're retaining urine? So many considerations...You have to use your best nursing judgment.

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Specializes in Medsurg/ICU, Mental Health, Home Health.

Well, how much is this patient peeing over 24 hours?

I don't mean how many TIMES, I mean the actual mLs. Are there other sources of output (drains, NG tube, colostomy, emesis, etc.)

Now how much is going in?

Okay, after I have those answers I'd take a look at vital signs, labs, and meds.

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Specializes in Pediatric/Adolescent, Med-Surg.

No, I don't consider it decreased urine output, unless it is a pt that is normally incontinent who I would expect to be going much more often.

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Not as long as they're voiding qs the evening before and in the AM.

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