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  1. This is a discussion on Need help with this question? in NCLEX Discussion Forum, part of Nursing Student ... Hi everyone I was reviewing NCLEX questions from the Exam cram book & there was this question which...

    by Feb 7
    Hi everyone I was reviewing NCLEX questions from the Exam cram book & there was this question which read like this:

    A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing mag. Sulfate. B/P is 160/80, Deep tendon reflexes are 1+, and Urinary output for the past hour is 100ml. The nurse should:
    A. Continue the infusion of mag sulfate while monitoring the clients BP
    B. Stop the infusion of Mag. Sulfate & contact the Physician
    C. Slow the infusion rate & turn the client on her left side
    D. Administer calcium gluconte & continue to monitor the BP

    My choice was B because Looking @ the urinary output which is too much & also decreased deep tendon reflexes... ..I thought the infusion should be stopped.

    I need some suggestions because I didn't understand why the correct answer was A.
    Thank you all.
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    by sonik Feb 7 1:22 am
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  3. 5 Comments so far...

  4. Feb 14 by
    Try this link, I did't have time to read through it...but it looks like it may have the answers you are looking for : ) Hope this helps.

    http://cmapspublic.ihmc.us/rid=11903...7504263145.pdf
  5. Feb 14 by
    Per-eclampsia is defined as a systolic BP of 160 or higher or a diastolic BP of 110 or higher and proteinuria of 5 grams or more. Her BP is still elevated. Urine output of 100mL in one hour is a little low, the bare minimum is 30mL/hr. focus on her BP, it needs to go down.

    Hope that helps.
  6. Feb 15 by
    I say B!!!!
  7. Feb 15 by
    Quote from Ericad85
    I say B!!!!
    The op already stated the correct answer according to the book is A. Why would you choose B?
  8. Feb 15 by
    yup A is the answer, BP is still high. DTR is still good. urine output is great for magnesium because they get excreted by the kidneys.