Toradol IM only vial given IV

[pantherboy]

I knw a nurse who had an order for toradol 30mg to be given IVpush. She pulled the vial (60mg/2ml) that states IM only. The nurse pushed 1ml r 30mg from this vial. Is that wrong r will it harm the patient?

[mb1949]

I wouldn't do it , I would have check with pharmacy to see if this could be used or to send up right med. Or spoke with DR about changing route or med.

[rn/writer, RN]

My guess it that the 60mg vials are labeled "For IM use only" because 60mg is too much to give IV push, and this kind of precaution would prevent that action. If the nurse used half of the amount in the vial, she would have given the 30mg that is safe to give IV push.

You should ask a pharmacist to be sure.

[myk_RN]

I wouldnt have given it.

Verify with pharmacy and if no IVP Toradol is available, I'd call MD to change the route.

[#1ME]

I have done that, the vial was a 30mg/ml one dose vial. I confirmed with pharmacy that it was okay to administer IV, even though the vial states IM only. He gave me an explanation of why, but I don't completely remember, something along the lines that it cost too much money to have the IV route FDA approved or something. What he said made sense, I just can't remember

[LovingNurse, BSN, RN]

If a vial is marked "for IM use only" & the order is for IV, then YES -check with the pharmacy. (When I was a new grad I found an error this way - and the drug absolutely was not to be given IV (the MD made an error) - When I called the pharmacist about it, he said "Oh, I'm so glad you called - I had that clarified with the MD and forgot to come to the floor to write the clarification!)

However in the example you cite, something as common as Toradol 30mg IV (at least where I work anyway) the nurse may have already known the answer and have been going off of prior knowledge. :redbeathe

[SkylerW]

If the Vial says IM only Pharmacy can not give you authorization to use it.

I know this because I have been faced with this many times.

J Webb, PhT