Ash0315

If you have a patient that is on hospice crisis care and they pass, do you remove the Foley and IV before calling mourge?? also so what steps does your facility take after someone dies?

Can someone please explain how to irrigate a Supra pubic catheter with a BULB syringe? Are you supposed to squeeze the bulb and leave it in there or squeeze it and let it come back?

Ok so I recently started working at ltc, and came across an order to irrigate a suprapubic catheter with 60 cc of sterile water. So I was wondering about that and in nursing school they had a syringe with sw in it already, my facility has a bulb syringe irrigation set. Can someone please explain the steps for bulb syringe irrigation ? I know that you have to take the drainage bag off of the catheter and fill the bulb syringe with sterile water, and put it into the end of the catheter,but do you insert the sterile water and let it flow back into the syringe since it's a bulb? Or do you hold the bulb so the water stays in there and reconnect the drainage bag? Thank you

Just started working in an LTC as LPN, was wondering WHEN to call the Dr/ON CALL I understand some things include: (that i can think of) lab results(abnormal) xray results??? (not sure) (fax or leave in book)? change in status.. a fall? pt. or family wanting to see dr?/change in medication request that is all i can think of ...any suggestions? also correct me if im wrong please! thank you so much. i am new and very nervous..

I am currently studying for the NCLEX and using the Saunders comprehensive review, i came across this question....... A client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving maintenance therapy with warfarin sodium (Coumadin) has a prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. The nurse anticipates that which will be prescribed? ANSWER CHOICES Adding a dose of heparin Increasing the next dose of warfarin sodium Withholding the next dose of warfarin sodium Administering the next dose of warfarin sodium The correct answer is 3, Withholding the next dose of warfarin sodium, and I DO NOT understand the rationale. (T[COLOR=#000000]he normal PT is 9.6 to 11.8 seconds for the adult male and 9.5 to 11.3 seconds for the adult female. The goal of oral anticoagulation with warfarin sodium therapy is to achieve a PT at 1.5 to 2 times the laboratory control value. A PT of 30 seconds places the client at risk for bleeding, so the nurse should anticipate that the client would not receive further doses at this time. If the level is too high, the antidote (vitamin K) may be prescribed. The remaining options would make the client even more prone to bleeding.[/COLOR]) I thought the answer would be administering warfarin (blood thinner) [COLOR=#000000]SOO..if the PT is HIGH (30 SECONDS) Doesn't that mean it takes a LONG TIME for the blood to clot, meaning that the patient should be receiving a blood THINNER ? someone please help me understand this PT/INR/blood thin/clot process??? THANKS![/COLOR]