I have a question. My husband and I are CNA's and after 6 months of employment, the place you work for has to reimburse you for your license. In his case it was just over 900 dollars. He is oncall employee and for the first five months worked upwards of 40hr/week. but not required to work that much. as he is 'ON CALL" called on needs. the last month he didn't work anything b/c of school but was still employed. I put my two weeks notice in and he didn't. He never quit.when I put my 2 weeks notice in, they said he was still an employee and that was End of October. He hasn't worked a shift in quit sometime, however they continued to send him his emails updating him on pt conditions...b/c he was "still an employee" well we submitted his paperwork for reimburesment and they said no his six month date was nov. 7th and his end date was Oct. 5. No, his last date worked was Oct. 5...he is still employed as oncall...he never put in a 2 week notice and never got terminated. Anyways, I called and told the manager that 1 of two things is true. 1. He was still "no longer employeed" as of Oct 5 and they violated HIPAA law for 2 months by updating him on pt conditions everyday (Ie. who died, who's med changes, who was admitted to the hospital, who was a new admin) via email or 2. he WAS employeed, they did not violate HIPAA and he was employeeed until Nov. 11th and he recieves his reimbursement. I mean he was employeed or he wasn't, and as a CNA it is our job to report HIPAA violations, or we can get in trouble. Do you guys consider this wrong? Or am I right. I see it as black or white. He was employeed the entire time, and gets reimbursement. Or he wasn't but they violated HIPAA.