I work the night shift and am a new graduate.. I had a patient who earlier that day was put on TPN through his mediport. During the night I had to hang a bag of dilatin and was confused about how to do it... he didn't have any PIVs, just the mediport. I thought maybe I could call the oncall pharmacy and see if his TPN was compatible, which I didn't think it would be. I knew I could try to start a new IV, but he was a hard stick. I figured that a good idea would be to turn off the TPN and flush his line with a lot of saline before and after the bag of dilatin. I consulted with the charge nurse to see if it was OK to just flush it with maybe 20ccs before and after. She told me I could just attatch a y site to the mediport and infuse them together. I didn't think that sounded right, because then they would be mixing together still in the tubing. There's about 6 inches of tubing where they would be mixed together. She said that that little bit is OK, if they were mixing together throughout the whole tubing it would be different. Well, she has 30 years of expereine as a nurse and I have one month of experience on my own, so I did it. The IV pump started saying "occlusion" and wouldn't continue. I checked the lines many times to see there was no occlusion. I flushed the mediport and everything and it flushed fine, but it still said occlusion and wouldn't go. I had the charge nurse look at it and she said I set it up as she told me to and to just try reaccessing it again. She had tried flushing it and that time it wouldn't flush. So I accessed it again and set it up as before, asking her again if she was sure it was OK to do that, and the same thing happened with "occlusion." I tried accessing it again and just ran the dilntin seperately, then resumed the TPN. Later I found that his mediport was infiltrated. He is now going to have a PICC line. Was the charge nurse wrong?