Published Mar 5, 2011
equinas82
1 Post
Can anyone help me to explain why D5W1/2NS, continuous infusion, is used in the treatment of pulmonary embolism with complications of bilateral lobe infiltrates? Is it a hypertonic or hypotonic solution? How does it specifically work? Thanks!
linearthinker, DNP, RN
1,688 Posts
Will defer to Daytonite. 8-(
https://allnurses.com/nursing-student-assistance/5-dextrose-1-a-254946.html
MouseMichelle
192 Posts
Funny when I had PE's ten on one lung 12 in the other I did not get that treatment.
GilaRRT
1,905 Posts
It's just maintenance fluid. Your not actually treating the PE, you are just giving it as part of standard care.
anonymurse
979 Posts
D5 1/2 is hypertonic in the bag, but because the body metabolizes the dextrose, it is isotonic in action. There is a very good article on Tonicity and IVFs that is well worth reading. The clear explanations of special warnings makes them easy to remember.
steelydanfan
784 Posts
D51/2 NS is hypotonic, as is plain 1/2 NS. NS, LR and D5NS are the only 3 isotonic solutions I remember. I only ever learned fluids as they function upon introduction to the bloodstream.
Please refresh this tired brain if I am wrong.
According to emedicine: "Fluid loading should be avoided unless the patient's hemodynamic condition is deteriorating rapidly, because IV fluids may worsen the patient's condition."
sunnycalifRN
902 Posts
As far as I know, the maintenance fluid has nothing to do with the treatment of the PE. Heparin drip would.