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Hey everyone! I'm currently taking Med Surg 1 over the summer and we recently had our second test. One of the questions I got wrong dose't make sense to me. I spoke with my teacher about it and she told me to post online and see what people say.
The question told us about a patient that was being seen in a clinic with stress incontinence. The question asked for an outcome appropriate for this patient. According to the test the correct answer is that the patient should do kegels a few times a week. I understand the kegels help with stress incontince however, my book lists kegels as an intervention for stress incontinence, not an outcome. Can anyone explain to me why kegels are an appropriate outcome?
Unfortunately, I feel that the textbook was wrong. Kegals are an outcome, due to the squeezing nature of the balls, which strengthens the lady partsl muscles. Surgery is a last resort for stress incontinence, as stress incontinence is only temporary. Hence the word "stress". But again, I could be wrong and anyone is invited to correct me. Thanks
Stress incontinence is not temporary. The word "stress" refers to the fact that the patient experiences incontinence during an event that places stress on the urethra, like coughing, sneezing, exercise, etc. It's not referring to emotional or social stress.
marlena.erika
46 Posts
This will always be used in practice!