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Thank you for responding. Actually I think I got it. Although it was not homework it was just bothering me. The headache & indigestion were side effects of meds and patient was in manic phase. Had it right the first time and then started overthinking the situation because those were the pts complaints when pt came in according to the Hx and physical. Pt was admitted after a MVA with multiple fx. The pt is now discharged but it was bothering me that all the nurses were saying the s/sx were part of the Bipolar.
BTW, cyclothymic/cyclothymia is a disorder unto itself. It describes a disorder in which an individual has never had a major depressive episode or a full-blown manic episode, but who has had both dysthymic (mini-depression) and hypomanic episodes that are ongoing for at least 2 years, and who has not been symptom-free for more than 2 months during those 2 years (my shortened version based on DSM-IV Tr).
BTW, cyclothymic/cyclothymia is a disorder unto itself. It describes a disorder in which an individual has never had a major depressive episode or a full-blown manic episode, but who has had both dysthymic (mini-depression) and hypomanic episodes that are ongoing for at least 2 years, and who has not been symptom-free for more than 2 months during those 2 years (my shortened version based on DSM-IV Tr).
Thanks much.
Melinurse
2,040 Posts
If you have a patient with headache, agitation, and indigestion what phase of bipolar is he/she in ? cyclothymic, depressive, hypomania, or manic?