Published Mar 11, 2007
Burnt Out, ASN, RN
647 Posts
My daughter has the "3 day measles" which is rubella, am I correct? I am confused as to how she can possibly contract rubella if she has had 1 MMR injection. Or do you have to have the 2nd MMR to be considered fully immune?
Just trying to think things through and need a little clarification please.
Thanks in advance.
NotReady4PrimeTime, RN
5 Articles; 7,358 Posts
Yes, it is possible to get the German measles after a first MMR... which is why there are two. First dose is usually given between 12 and 15 months and the second at ages 4-6. How old is your daughter?
Some people don't develop the same level of immune response to vaccines as others do; they would then have low antibody titres and would not mount as vigorous an attack on pathogens as would those with a more pronounced immune response. Infants who have had only one or two of the initial series of DPT-P vaccines may indeed come down with pertussis, as they haven't developed enough of a resistance. Does that help?
Yes, it is possible to get the German measles after a first MMR... which is why there are two. First dose is usually given between 12 and 15 months and the second at ages 4-6. How old is your daughter?Some people don't develop the same level of immune response to vaccines as others do; they would then have low antibody titres and would not mount as vigorous an attack on pathogens as would those with a more pronounced immune response. Infants who have had only one or two of the initial series of DPT-P vaccines may indeed come down with pertussis, as they haven't developed enough of a resistance. Does that help?
My daughter is 2 (as of next week).
Your explanation does help. It is just a little hard to think about it as a nurse when it is your child, know what I mean?
Thank you for your help!:thankya: