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A patient's employer called today stating that the patient was there with her, to start working after being given a few days off by our doctor. They want to make sure she is not contagious to their own patients. The record was faxed to the employer and now we found out the patient has been fired. The doctor told us it is not a hippa violation because of the fact that the patient had given OUR information to the employer and that is an implied consent that they can discuss her condition with them. Is it true?
toomuchbaloney
16,033 Posts
If the employer has proper permission they are still required to go through the proper channels and processes to access protected health information.