Published Aug 13, 2018
Dreagrl3
8 Posts
Hello,
My peers and I are having issues understanding the following drip calculation problem. Can anyone please help us understand how to get to the provided answer? Thank you very much!!
Answer: 26.4 ml/hr
chare
4,323 Posts
Why don't you start by telling us what you think, and showing us what you have done.
203bravo, MSN, APRN
1,211 Posts
I'm feeling generous this evening so I'll offer some guidance.
1st - if your BIS is 35 and you need to keep it in the 40-60 range then you would need to decrease the rate of the infusion of Propofol.
according to policy you can adjust the rate by 5 mcg/kg/min
currently running at 60 mcg/kg/min then you would adjust to 55 mcg/kg/min
2nd - calculate your new mcg/min using the known weight - I took it a step further by going ahead and figuring mg/min
From here it should be simple for you to calculate with dimensional analysis
mL/hr = mg/min * min/hr * ml/mg
Thank you for your help. I'm reading this after watching some YouTube tutorials which broke it down. We hadn't learned this yet so that is why we were confused. It all makes perfect sense now. Thank you very much for your helpful response. Hopefully it'll help others as well. =)
bgxyrnf, MSN, RN
1,208 Posts
I'm glad that you were, with help, able to answer your own question. That is how real learning takes place.
Now teach it to someone else and it will be forever yours.
See one - do one - teach one and the Socratic method really work.
Go forth and be awesome.
If you are using dimensional analysis, the following formula includes all necessary conversions, and all units except for mL/hour cancel.
(? mcg/(kg×min)) × (? kg/1) × (60 min/1 hour) × (1 mL/10 mg) × (1 mg/1,000 mcg) = mL/hour