meds over obj/consent for tx-BIG DIfferece??
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my background is behavioral health....our unit recently "transitioned" to a gero-psych unit, from ltc psych..... all the pts. remained the same. >90% of the staff remained the same...EXCEPT for the nurse mgr., sws, & pmp. we have a 80yr bi-polar who is refusing meds & rapidly decomensating. in the past a 2pc would be completed...conversion to invol. status w/a forced medication ethics comittee mtg to determine the validity of forcing meds over objection (only after all 2pcs & conversions were complete) if the comittee deemed it just to force meds, they would then review the case q 30,60,90 days to determine the continued need for forced meds, or if the pt has stabilized & is taking po meds willingly now (no longer a danger to self & others, of course also) NOW....that we are geriatrics....this pt had signed a "consent for treatment" form when he was stabilized. MY NM, says that we do not need to follow the "behavioral health rules, because he signed a consent for treatment & that means we can give him injections of his psych meds over his objection.......This isnt right is it????? what if i went in the hospital, signed a consent for treatment & then changed my mind.....the hospital can just hold me down & preform the procedure,meds, what have you...wouldnt there have to be a legal reason, intervention to do this??? i dont get it....what difference does it make if you are on the geriatric side of the house or the behavioral health side.....if something is being forced upon someone after they change their mind (albeit a diseased mind) their are rules & regs for this stuff isnt there???? HELP ME UNDERSTAND!!!!!