Foley ordered for patient able to void on own?

Nurses General Nursing


I had a urologist recommend placing a foley on a patient due to neurogenic bladder and bilateral hydronephrosis. Attending doc was notified of this and placed an order to insert foley— however, she was able to urinate on her own all throughout the shift and the bladder scan roughly an hour before the order was placed had shown 0mL. I asked the charge nurse about this as I was unsure about placing the foley since a) bladder scan showed 0mL and b) the patient has been able to void on her own all day despite the aforementioned conditions, and charge nurse said it was due to the neurogenic bladder. Any nurses (or maybe urologists floating around here) able to offer insight on this? I ended up attempting to place the foley (unable to successfully do so) however have gotten off work and realizing maybe I should've asked urologist for clarification....

Specializes in Psychiatry, Community, Nurse Manager, hospice.
offlabel said:

right...but there are legitimate, relevant questions and questions that should be run by more experienced people first. You know as well as I do that answering the phone for questions that are seen in the same category as 'what's your favorite color?' will get a grouchy response.

Calling to question a foley for a patient who is voiding on her own with 0 mL post void is a legitimate call, not at all like what's your favorite color. That should be obvious from the comments here. Leaving without placing the foley and not communicating concerns is  the problem behavior here. 

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