I have a coding question for anyone out there. I recently graduated and was taught that for us to bill incident to and get the 100%, the doctor must be physically be in the building. I ask this because I'm finding out I work for a shady doctor right now. She is out of the office in the OR at the hospital across the street while I'm seeing patients. She said that I can still bill because she is available by phone. But I thought there was a new change that they had to be physically available. Or maybe it is just Florida.
Also, when our notes are dictated they said.....patient was seen by doc and myself. I brought this up to the doc that she obviously is not there to see them with me if she is in the OR, but she said once again that she is available by phone. I don't want to be committing any fraud, but having a hard time knowing if billing 99213 and 99214 while she is not there is legit. Can anyone clarify for me?
Thanks
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I have a coding question for anyone out there. I recently graduated and was taught that for us to bill incident to and get the 100%, the doctor must be physically be in the building. I ask this because I'm finding out I work for a shady doctor right now. She is out of the office in the OR at the hospital across the street while I'm seeing patients. She said that I can still bill because she is available by phone. But I thought there was a new change that they had to be physically available. Or maybe it is just Florida.
Also, when our notes are dictated they said.....patient was seen by doc and myself. I brought this up to the doc that she obviously is not there to see them with me if she is in the OR, but she said once again that she is available by phone. I don't want to be committing any fraud, but having a hard time knowing if billing 99213 and 99214 while she is not there is legit. Can anyone clarify for me?
Thanks