Published
35 year old female came in with MVC from ER complaints of pain and discomfort in the abdo.
PMHX: IVDU, C-section, G3P3, Anemia
In total patient received Hydromorphone 2mg IVP x3 in ED, Fentanyl 100mcg IVP
VS: Temp 98, HR 40s Sinus Bradycardia, RR 36s, BP 110/60, Spo2 88% room Air
Labs include: Na135 K4.0 Glucose3.5 Creatinine90 Hgb80 PLT355 INR1.2
1) Please tell me what is happening to the patient?
2) What are your priority assessments?
3) Name your nursing interventions?
Need help with this interview question, thanks!
JKL33
7,045 Posts
What is the context surrounding this curious post? It's an interview question?
What would you check and what would you do knowing that your patient's HR is 40, RR is ~twice normal and SpO2 is low? Everyone who has perused an ACLS book knows at least one priority assessment item and one possible intervention item.
Inquiring minds want to know more about what you're looking for and why. And throw us a bone. Surely with ED experience you know something about this! ?