Hello! I wonder if someone might help here. I work in a med/surg ICU and we monitor telemetries in the hospital as there is no CCU. A post-op cholectomy, 84 years old, not on anticoagulants, with a history of HTN, was on telemetry immediately post-op. He went into fast afib, as he had done briefly and previously pre-op. When the cardiologist on-call was paged, he prescribed 50 metoprolol po. Of course the patient stayed in fast afib, 160-200, since po takes a while to work. After one hour being that fast, I paged the cardiologist and informed him of the rate, and that he was otherwise asymptomatic, with a drop in BP to 100/45, from 130/70. The cardiologist said it was fine. When I expressed my concern that the patient wasn't putting out much urine and was only getting Ringer's at 75/hr, and that I was worried about a clot, he said a patient needs to be going fast like that for about 48 hours to throw a clot. REALLY? I was shocked, but that came from the cardiologist. I documented what I said and left it to that. What do you all think? Is that correct??
Thank you!