So, after perusing several methods of diluting IV push medications, I decided on the following method.
In this example, I'll use promethazine (Phenergan), 25 mg/1 mL with an order of 25 mg.
Here is the method I like to use:
1. Use a 1- or 3-mL syringe to draw up exactly 1 mL of promethazine
2. Empty 1 mL out of a 10 mL prefilled BD Posiflush saline syringe, at no time touching the threads on the syringe cap or anything that comes into contact with the fluid in the saline syringe itself.
3. Carefully Insert the needle of the 1- or 3-mL syringe into the top of the saline syringe and inject 1 mL of promethazine into the saline syringe.
4. Recap the saline syringe, at no time having contaminated the cap or tip of the syringe
5. Label the flush syringe as "promethazine, 25 mg"
When I told one of my coworkers this, she started freaking out and said "NEVER put anything in one of those prefilled syringes!" and said I should use the vials of saline instead.
I like my method as I'm never wondering exactly how much saline and drug I have in my syringe or whether I've accidentally let some of the drug flow into the saline vial. I'm also not worrying about having to inject air in the saline vial or alcohol the top of the saline syringe after opening it (as my finger sometimes slides across the top of the rubber in the saline vial as I take the cap off.)
When I asked her why she was so against it, she could offer no real explanation other than she was told not to and that I should do it her way.
I'm not satisfied by her reasoning. My state board of nursing has determined that I'm capable of exercising clinical judgment in the care of my patients, and I can't think of a single reason not to do it the way I've described when it's what works for me.
Can anyone offer some actual research as to whether this method is or is not acceptable?