Hey. I was just wondering if anyone can give me any feedback. I just started nursing school
and I am taking pharmacology, so i guess its expected that won't know everything until later in the course.
But i have a case study about using PCA therapy for ONE DAY with morphine and INADEQUATE pain control from it, a doctor orders a switch to hydromorphone prepared at the same dosage solution and administration as the morphine--1 mg hydromorphone per injection up to 5 mg per hour.
WHat do you expect might happen and why?
My first guess what that since the morphine was stopped abruptly, "something might happen to patient", but then i'm thrown off by the idea that since it was just used for ONE day, and being that both morphine and hydromorphone are in the same opioid category, I would not think that the patient will probably undergo the same inaqdequate control of pain since it may do the same thing as morhpine. unless its stronger?
oh.. please help. am I even in the right direction?