Our DON has decided that a patient cannot give consent for any surgican procedure if they have been medicated for pain within FOUR hours prior to signing. So... if you come to our facility you will not have any opiates for pain four hours before signing your consent; regardless of the source of pain. Does this strike anyone else as barbaric? Doesn't pain impair the mind, sometimes more than any opiate might? Could denying a patient pain relief until after signing a consent be considered a form of coercion? What do you think???
Aug 17, '08
by Tweety, BSN
JACHO strikes again.
One is considered impaired under the influence of opiates. We have to get consent from next of kin when a patient is under the influence of pain medicine and we don't withold pain medicine just to get consent.
I notice too that when the police interview victims or criminals they always ask when the last pain medication was administered.
Last edit by Tweety on Aug 17, '08