Published Sep 15, 2007
Jedi of Zen
277 Posts
I have a few questions about the Rinne's test. I understand how it is done, and I understand what the results mean, but I don't understand why.
1. When the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid process, this is called bone conduction, correct? Well, what I'm wondering is - does the term "bone conduction" refer to the bones of the middle ear (ie, the auditory ossicles)? If not, then what does "bone conduction" actually refer to?
2. When the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid, does that stimulate the auditory ossicles, normally? If conduction loss is present, will the auditory ossicles still be stimulated and made to function? If not, then how do the vibrations actually reach the vestibulocochlear nerve? In other words, is the vestibulocochlear nerve connected to the mastoid process? (If not, then how is that nerve being stimulated?)
3. Why is it exactly that sound is heard longer through air if sensorineural impairment exists? Actually, how can hearing occur at all if sensorineural impairment exists? The way I see it, you can tap on that nerve till you're blue in the face, but if it's not working, then no sound information will ever be sent to the brain, correct?
4. Finally - if sound is heard longer through air in both normal hearing AND in sensorineural loss, then how do you tell the distinguish between those two conditions? Is it simply a matter of hearing acuity being reduced in sensorineural loss? If so, how can you actually tell that it's reduced? In other words, nothing that I've read says anything about how long or how loud air conduction is supposed to be heard - merely that it will be heard longer than bone conduction in both normal loss and sensorineural loss. Which leaves me wondering how to tell the difference...?
I know these are probably ridiculously stupid questions, and maybe I'm just thinking about it all too hard, but I just want to understand the process and not merely memorize rote facts like a zombie.
Much thanks,
The Jedi.
Music in My Heart
1 Article; 4,111 Posts
i have a few questions about the rinne's test. i understand how it is done, and i understand what the results mean, but i don't understand why. 1. when the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid process, this is called bone conduction, correct? well, what i'm wondering is - does the term "bone conduction" refer to the bones of the middle ear (ie, the auditory ossicles)? if not, then what does "bone conduction" actually refer to?bone conduction refers to the conduction of the vibration through the temporal bone. strictly speaking, the vibration is never conducted through the ossicles. rather, the vibrations of the tympanic membrane cause displacement of the ossicles which then cause displacement of the oval window which results in a standing wave in the cochlear duct.the ossicles transmit the vibration, they don't conduct it.2. when the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid, does that stimulate the auditory ossicles, normally? yes, the vibrations of the fork are conducted through the temporal bone and cause a vibration in the tympanic membrane. however, the vibrations are also conducted through the temporal bone directly to the cochlea and contribute to the standing wave that way.if conduction loss is present, will the auditory ossicles still be stimulated and made to function? in conduction deafness, the ossicles may not be displaced as normal. if not, then how do the vibrations actually reach the vestibulocochlear nerve? as mentioned above, they are conducted through the temporal bone directly to the cochlea.in other words, is the vestibulocochlear nerve connected to the mastoid process? (if not, then how is that nerve being stimulated?) no.3. why is it exactly that sound is heard longer through air if sensorineural impairment exists? actually, how can hearing occur at all if sensorineural impairment exists? the way i see it, you can tap on that nerve till you're blue in the face, but if it's not working, then no sound information will ever be sent to the brain, correct? my understanding is that it's not a matter of "longer" but rather a matter of "louder." rinne's test detects conduction deafness. if there is conduction deafness, the sound heard through the temporal bone will not be heard through the auditory meatus.sensory deafness is detected by weber's test, not rinne's test.i don't really understand your question. however, be aware that "impairment" doesn't imply a complete lack of function but rather diminished function (which may or may not be a total lack of function).in thinking about it over dinner, it occurs to me that "longer" equates with "louder" since the latter refers to a larger amplitude of compaction/rarefaction which thus takes "longer" to decrease to a point where it's no longer perceived.4. finally - if sound is heard longer through air in both normal hearing and in sensorineural loss, then how do you tell the distinguish between those two conditions? is it simply a matter of hearing acuity being reduced in sensorineural loss? if so, how can you actually tell that it's reduced? in other words, nothing that i've read says anything about how long or how loud air conduction is supposed to be heard - merely that it will be heard longer than bone conduction in both normal loss and sensorineural loss. which leaves me wondering how to tell the difference...? time for me to have dinner. i'll edit this later. again, though, sensory deafness is detected through weber's test, not rinne's test.i know these are probably ridiculously stupid questions, and maybe i'm just thinking about it all too hard, but i just want to understand the process and not merely memorize rote facts like a zombie. you are to be commended.much thanks, the jedi.
1. when the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid process, this is called bone conduction, correct? well, what i'm wondering is - does the term "bone conduction" refer to the bones of the middle ear (ie, the auditory ossicles)? if not, then what does "bone conduction" actually refer to?
bone conduction refers to the conduction of the vibration through the temporal bone.
strictly speaking, the vibration is never conducted through the ossicles. rather, the vibrations of the tympanic membrane cause displacement of the ossicles which then cause displacement of the oval window which results in a standing wave in the cochlear duct.
the ossicles transmit the vibration, they don't conduct it.
2. when the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid, does that stimulate the auditory ossicles, normally? yes, the vibrations of the fork are conducted through the temporal bone and cause a vibration in the tympanic membrane. however, the vibrations are also conducted through the temporal bone directly to the cochlea and contribute to the standing wave that way.
if conduction loss is present, will the auditory ossicles still be stimulated and made to function? in conduction deafness, the ossicles may not be displaced as normal.
if not, then how do the vibrations actually reach the vestibulocochlear nerve? as mentioned above, they are conducted through the temporal bone directly to the cochlea.
in other words, is the vestibulocochlear nerve connected to the mastoid process? (if not, then how is that nerve being stimulated?) no.
3. why is it exactly that sound is heard longer through air if sensorineural impairment exists? actually, how can hearing occur at all if sensorineural impairment exists? the way i see it, you can tap on that nerve till you're blue in the face, but if it's not working, then no sound information will ever be sent to the brain, correct? my understanding is that it's not a matter of "longer" but rather a matter of "louder." rinne's test detects conduction deafness. if there is conduction deafness, the sound heard through the temporal bone will not be heard through the auditory meatus.
sensory deafness is detected by weber's test, not rinne's test.
i don't really understand your question. however, be aware that "impairment" doesn't imply a complete lack of function but rather diminished function (which may or may not be a total lack of function).
in thinking about it over dinner, it occurs to me that "longer" equates with "louder" since the latter refers to a larger amplitude of compaction/rarefaction which thus takes "longer" to decrease to a point where it's no longer perceived.
4. finally - if sound is heard longer through air in both normal hearing and in sensorineural loss, then how do you tell the distinguish between those two conditions? is it simply a matter of hearing acuity being reduced in sensorineural loss? if so, how can you actually tell that it's reduced? in other words, nothing that i've read says anything about how long or how loud air conduction is supposed to be heard - merely that it will be heard longer than bone conduction in both normal loss and sensorineural loss. which leaves me wondering how to tell the difference...? time for me to have dinner. i'll edit this later. again, though, sensory deafness is detected through weber's test, not rinne's test.
i know these are probably ridiculously stupid questions, and maybe i'm just thinking about it all too hard, but i just want to understand the process and not merely memorize rote facts like a zombie. you are to be commended.
much thanks,
the jedi.
.....
Daytonite, BSN, RN
1 Article; 14,604 Posts
you always ask such probing questions!
i don't know that i can find the answer to all your questions. you should check some of the physical exam resources from the medical colleges on the health assessment resources, techniques, and forms sticky thread (https://allnurses.com/forums/f205/health-assessment-resources-techniques-forms-145091.html) as well as a good anatomy book because i think that is where you're going to find most of your answers.
this is what textbook of physical diagnosis: history and examination by mark h. swartz has to say about these tests (page 204)
my old notes from my assessment class indicate that rinne and weber are tests of the 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear, sometimes called the acoustic) which is responsible for hearing and balance. my knowledge of anatomy goes this far: vibration sets off the wave motions of the hairs in the organ of corti which are then translated to impulses and conducted along through the acoustic nerve. that is how we hear sound.
these hairs are stimulated to movement (which then sends off a stimulus through the acoustic nerve resulting in the brain "hearing" sound) in two ways:
hearing is impeded by
the rinne test, as dr. swartz says, only compares the air and bone conduction. i think that for more specific hearing tests, other testing needs to be done. these are just tests of gross hearing ability. in order for sound to be appreciated, the hairs in the organ of corti must be set into motion. from what i can gather, and i don't have an anatomy book to confirm this, these are the only two ways that it can happen and the rinne and weber tests just distinguish between them is all. from what i can deduce, bone conduction of sound is a very passive thing. it just happens once the tuning fork is applied to the mastoid bone. there doesn't seem to be a way to actively block the vibration of any of these bones since they are all interconnected. if there was, it would be some sort of pathological condition, i'm sure (see next paragraph).
sensorineural deafness is due to "defective function of the cochlea or acoustic nerve" (page 490, taber's cyclopedic medical dictionary, 18th edition, published in 1997 by f.a. davis company). conduction deafness "results from any condition that prevents sound waves from being transmitted to the auditory receptors. it may result from wax obstructing the external auditory meatus, inflammation of the middle ear, ankylosis of the ear bones, or fixation of the footplate of the stirrup. [note: these are things that would impede vibration]" (page 490, taber's cyclopedic medical dictionary, 18th edition, published in 1997 by f.a. davis company).
"Longer" (not "louder") is the term that Potter & Perry uses in Fundamentals of Nursing, 6th edition,. So that's what I'm referring to. (Not that this book is ever vague about anything, btw... )
I'm still trying to sort through it all, but your explanation is helping for the time being. Thank you very much for your time, and even for thinking about it over dinner!
Thanks Daytonite. I have a test coming up, and I have lots more questions, but I'll try to spare you any further questions for right now. :)