Rinne's test
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I have a few questions about the Rinne's test. I understand how it is done, and I understand what the results mean, but I don't understand why.
1. When the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid process, this is called bone conduction, correct? Well, what I'm wondering is - does the term "bone conduction" refer to the bones of the middle ear (ie, the auditory ossicles)? If not, then what does "bone conduction" actually refer to?
2. When the tuning fork is placed against the mastoid, does that stimulate the auditory ossicles, normally? If conduction loss is present, will the auditory ossicles still be stimulated and made to function? If not, then how do the vibrations actually reach the vestibulocochlear nerve? In other words, is the vestibulocochlear nerve connected to the mastoid process? (If not, then how is that nerve being stimulated?)
3. Why is it exactly that sound is heard longer through air if sensorineural impairment exists? Actually, how can hearing occur at all if sensorineural impairment exists? The way I see it, you can tap on that nerve till you're blue in the face, but if it's not working, then no sound information will ever be sent to the brain, correct?
4. Finally - if sound is heard longer through air in both normal hearing AND in sensorineural loss, then how do you tell the distinguish between those two conditions? Is it simply a matter of hearing acuity being reduced in sensorineural loss? If so, how can you actually tell that it's reduced? In other words, nothing that I've read says anything about how long or how loud air conduction is supposed to be heard - merely that it will be heard longer than bone conduction in both normal loss and sensorineural loss. Which leaves me wondering how to tell the difference...?
I know these are probably ridiculously stupid questions, and maybe I'm just thinking about it all too hard, but I just want to understand the process and not merely memorize rote facts like a zombie.
Much thanks,
The Jedi.