Pharm math help

[kossaf]

hello everyone,

here is the problem:

you have to inject 0.60 mg of atropine.

supply: ampoules of

1/4 mg in 1 ml

or

1/2 mg in 1 ml

calculate the volume to inject.

i would answer it this way: if i take the ampoule with 1/4 mg/ 1ml 0.60:0.25=2.4ml to be injected

if i consider the ampoule which contains 1/2mg/1ml 0.60:0.2= 1.2ml to be injected

i really don't understand why the volume to be injected is not the same:banghead::banghead:

will the answer be: the solutin is more concentrated in the 1/2mg/1ml ampoule?:banghead:

[Daytonite, BSN, RN]

you have to inject 0.60 mg of atropine.

supply: ampoules of

1/4 mg in 1 ml

or

1/2 mg in 1 ml

calculate the volume to inject.

the idea is that you want to inject the smallest amount you can into someone's muscle, so you want to use the most concentrated solution. that would be the

1/2 mg in 1 ml.

1/2 mg is = 0.5 mg as a decimal.

0.60 mg

(dose desired)

/0.5 mg

(dose on hand)

x 1 ml

(amount the dose on hand comes in)

=

1.2 ml

(amount to give)

if you use the

1/4 mg in 1 ml (0.25 mg)

you would have to use

0.60 mg

(dose desired)

/0.25 mg

(dose on hand)

x 1 ml

(amount the dose on hand comes in)

=

2.4 ml

(amount to give)

since you want to inject the smallest volume into someone's muscle, you would use the ampoule of

1/2 mg in 1 ml and give 1.2 ml.

[nurz2be]

1/2 mg is twice as much mg as the 1/4 mg so you should expect the amount to be given to be at twice as much.

The math can be confusing and overwhelming until you feel "confident" in the formula you use.

GOOD LUCK!!!!!!!!!

[kossaf]

Thank you Daytonite & nurz2be for your answers, I can see clearly now:up: