Published Oct 25, 2008
cminmd
24 Posts
We are just starting our section on ostomies, but I have seen several in clinical settings. I have so many questions. First- why does a urinary diversion not drain out continually, but a fecal ostomy does? I think patients would much rather have to go to the bathroom every hour than have to strap on a bag of poo all day. I had a 22 year old guy with ulcerative colitis who refused the ostomy despite all the drs pushing for that option. I didn't say anything, but I can't say I didn't agree with him. I know I could not deal. Also, why is their so much variations between ostomies. Some are huge and protude, others are much smaller and only slightly humped. Is that surgical skill or what accounts for the difference? Also placement. I know that placement depends on which area of the intestine is damaged, but does placement site make some ostomies better or easier for patients? Thanks for any help!
Kevin RN08
295 Posts
There is continant urinary diversions, a Koch's pouch is made from a section of bowel to form a "bladder" it's usually emptied Q2H.
Not to be judgemental, but the questions you're asking are probably answered by your textbook. I'm sure you will find the answers while you are pre-reading for class.
Not to be judgemental, but if you can build a pouch for urine that doesn't leak, why can't you build a pouch for feces that doesn't leak? Just by the viscosity of the two samples you would think that it would be harder to keep a liquid from seeping than a runny or semi-formed solid.
And no, my text book does not cover it that is why I asked. The text book makes it sound like the majority of patients would not have ostomies. It implies the only patient who would get an ostomy is someone who had rectal cancer or diseased rectal tissue, but I have seen so far that many patients without cancer, or highly placed UC or Crohns still get ostomies. The book says
""Patients with UC may also need to have a total proctocolectomy. In both situations the surgeon will form an ileal pouch anal anastomosis. If the anal sphincters are not diseased they can be left intact, if not the person will need to have a permanent ileostomy."
I was just wondering why the book (which I know is highly theoretical) is so different from what I see in practice. I was wondering if EBP showed that leaving any portion of the intestine makes relapes more likely? pointed to the n is that the disease will spread anyway so might as well remove it all?
Thanks for you help, you make me feel so welcome.
I evidently was insensitive to your question, my apologies. But I didn't see the questions raised in your second post in the first post. If you look at my posting history I am not a judgemental person (or poster), few if anything I've posted would offend anyone. Secondly, too often folks post questions here expecting others to do the work for them, you've seen the posts "What's a good NCP for XXX", and such.
From my own reading, whether to use a continent or incontinent ostomy depends on what the medical problem is, where the problem it is in the bowel (obstruction), how much good bowel is remaining, whether it is a permanent or temporary solution. UC is a progressive dz that spreads from the rectum continually through the colon, whereas Crohn's effects both the lg and sm intestines and lesions have no pattern of progression. In both cases the disease would spread to the "continent" pouch raising the prospect of rupture and potential peritonitis.
Some pts with diverticulitis will have temporary ostomies to allow for the inflammation heal, and then have the colon ends reconnected when sufficient healing has taken place (9-12months).
Hope this help some.
Maybe post in the General Board or under the specialties tab.
Dianacabana
168 Posts
What text are you using, Kevin? I'd be interested too in following up on some of the excellent questions brought up by the OP. Its not in either of my texts (Jarvis or Taylor).
Thanks!
Lewis 7th Ed. Chapt. 39 - 43, plus some similar content that I have in my notes from class.
No worries, Mate!
I have Lewis as well, but maybe they consider that information more "diagnosis" and out of our sphere of practice, but it seems like that is the type of questions patients would ask a nurse "in the room". The only ones I have seen that are to be reattached later are the double ostomy cases, but I have only seen one and that was for a gun shot victim, not due to a disease process. That is why the lewis comments seemed very atypical to me. I was wondering if in the real world- disease is full removal, but trauma is reversible? I don't know.
Daytonite, BSN, RN
1 Article; 14,604 Posts
first- why does a urinary diversion not drain out continually, but a fecal ostomy does?
also, why is their so much variations between ostomies. some are huge and protude, others are much smaller and only slightly humped. is that surgical skill or what accounts for the difference?
also placement. i know that placement depends on which area of the intestine is damaged, but does placement site make some ostomies better or easier for patients?
the text book makes it sound like the majority of patients would not have ostomies. it implies the only patient who would get an ostomy is someone who had rectal cancer or diseased rectal tissue, but i have seen so far that many patients without cancer, or highly placed uc or crohns still get ostomies.
http://www.surgeryencyclopedia.com/ce-fi/colostomy.html - the surgery
http://www.c3life.com/ostomy/ - patient support
http://www.colostomyassociation.org.uk/ - patient support
Daytonite, will you please come teach at my school? This is amazing information. I can't wait to share it with my class mates.
THANK YOU!!