Published Feb 7, 2017
IJ_606
9 Posts
Quick question in the title. Thanks guys! :)
Double-Helix, BSN, RN
3,377 Posts
Yes and no. They are the same in that both break down blood clots. But, as the name implies, thrombolytics act on the entire thrombus (clot) while fibrinolytics break down the fibrin within the clot. Essentially fibrinolytic are a type of thrombolytic. Some drugs do both. These are separate still from anticoaglants- which prevent clot formation, but do not break down clots. Antiplatelet or antiaggregate drugs that inhibit platelet clumping, are a form of anticoagulant.
AliNajaCat
1,035 Posts
No fibrin, no clot, so the answer is yes, from a functional standpoint. I learned the clotting cascade a dozen times and still can't reproduce it all, but reviewing the graphic depiction will help you understand this.
LessValuableNinja
754 Posts
If a clot falls in the forest, and there was no fibrin to see it, was it ever really there in the first place?