Does anyone have a good nursing diagnosis using r/t and also AEB for an IV infiltration? Nurse must not have checked patient most of the night because when I got there for my clinicals the 10 year old boy's hand was swollen and all his fluids had run into his tissues. RN d/c'd the IV and NEVER applied ANY compresses at all to his hand nor elevated his hand or arm. Maybe it's because they ended up using the same arm for his IV to restart again by using the Right ANC. For some reason he had two IV's started in his right extremity.
One was in his hand and one was in his ANC. Only the hand was being used when I got there at 7am but they d/c'd it because it had really badly infiltrated. My instructor was livid when she found out about it. Not at me but at the nurse. I don't think she said anything to the nurse about it but she sure told me a few times. I don't know why warm compresses weren't applied to his hand or elevated. Any opinion? I'm not a nurse yet of course so still learning here.
Also, any nursing diagnosis advice? I want to use his IV infiltration as his Priority Nursing Diagnosis only because by the time I got there he was feeling fine and was later discharged home. He was admitted for possible meningitis so they started him on Vanc right away (which also was infiltrated in his hand!!!!) along with the Dextrose 5% Sodium Chloride 0.9% that was running along with the Vanc. His CSF came back no bacteria and the doctors told him that he must have just gotten a virus and now he has recovered. He only had a fever of 99.1 when I left the unit and he hadn't vomited and no nausea for two days. He actually was doing really well even eating and drinking fine. So, am I right to use the IV infiltration as his priority diagnosis or what is anyone's opinion on this?