I have a case study for maternity that I am working on and one of the questions has me a bit stumped. I think I have an idea as to what the answer may be, but I'm looking for some feedback.
I have a patient who is G1P1 DOD with a history of mild-moderate pre eclampsia. She is currently on 2 Gms/hr MgSO4 IV, 20 units of pitocin in 1L of D51/2NS over 8 hours IV, and methergine 0.2mg po TID x 24 hours. She also received an IM dose of methergine 0.2mg upon placental delivery. She has only moderate lochia rubra and has moderate-severe uterine pain while breastfeeding.
The question is why the client is on Pitocin given Methergine also does the same thing. The only things I can think of is a) the MgSO4 lessens uterine contractions and maybe the Methergine isn't enough to keep the uterus contracted after birth or, b) since Pitocin also causes a decrease in blood pressure when initially administered that it may be used to help control her blood pressure, which is a major factor in preventing eclampsia.
So does it seem like I'm on the right track? Let me know! Thanks