What do you guys think of this?
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So we were REALLY full last night and had to hold some of the sicker patients for a long time because floors were full. When I came on I got a 86 y/o man who was a SAH and very confused normally (brain tumor), they had already lost several IV on his very frail veins and I had just removed one because someone had given dilantin to him IVP which had extravastated and cause massive (I mean massive) edema and purple-black discoloration to his hand and halfway up his arm. I nursed it all night, and it had gotten a little better, but by this point I had started two more IVs in his other hand due to him pulling them out and he had no more places to put an IV, and was not a candidate for a central line or even a PICC.
So 8 hours later when it was time to give him another dose of dilantin, I called the pharmacy and asked them to send it in a drip, and they told me no because it was wasteful, and that there was no reason why I couldn't give it by IVP and that the ICU always does it that way, so why did I have a problem with it. I talked to another nurse about it and she said that giving dilantin IVP is always acceptable, however everyone else agreed with me that it should never be given IVP unless absolutely necessary, especially through a peripheral due to potential purple hand syndrome, and potential necrosis. I learned this a long time ago, and am wondering if something has changed.
I also feel that I should not have been questioned like I was regarding this since I had my reasoning and it wasn't related to wasting resources (poor access, elderly, multiple problems, etc). I guess I just don't see what the big deal was. They only would send it to me in a bag after I got the MD to order that it be given per drip. The original order didn't specify by push or drip, just said "dilantin 100mg intravenously"
So I guess I'm asking if everyone routinely given dilantin by IVP or by drip, what are your policies regarding it's IV administration?
Thanks so much!