ALEXIS VALIENTE

i wont argue with you anymore...because its useless.... its not the first time that your reply to a thread is indifferent and sounds unfriendly.. i think i just have to find it out on my own... thanks anyway!

hi daytonite.. i already looked up to those links but i just cant find the answers to my question...they only explain why the patient suffer from severe pain but never said anything about the reason why the legs of the patients become numb.. as much as possible.. i dont ask for help to anyone with regards to this kind of stuff because i think i will retain the information longer if i found them myself..but it just happened that i cant find the information myself.... so pls be a little considerate... im sorry if im not as good as you... anyway thanks for the links..

hi!!! im hoping that someone here can explain me about the disease of my patient.. we are now having our clinical rotation in the orthopedic ward and my patient is suffering from HNP. She was confined because of severe low back pain.. that was two weeks ago and has been in the wheelchair and bed since then. she is now preparing herself for a laminectomy.. what im confused about is that upon my assessment, she said she is not experiencing any pain although no analgesic was given to her and her muscles in both her calf atrophied.. can anyone explain to me how that happen... thanks in advance..

so it is sterile since the blood that the kidney filter is sterile... unless there is contaminants which is whether pathogenic or non pathogenic... the only time that the urine becomes unsterile is when it passes the urethra and the urinary meatus where normal flora inhabits... :wink2::wink2: thanks guys!!!!

ohhh... so thats it!!!! thanks a lot!!!!!! its something that ill be reminded of when i pee... hihihhihihi but honestly, thanks for the info!!!! thanks alot!!!

how could urine be sterile when it is a waste product??? pls enlighten me!!! thanks!!!

very right~!!!!

somberhue, maybe u are from the philippines coz i too encountered that IV fluid before.... and I had a hard time looking in different books and searching the net but i didnt find a good resource.... all i can remember was that the nurses in the hospital where we are doing our rotation is always infusing that to pt with BPN (bronchopneumonia)....

im also waiting.. im just hoping that someone will clear this thing up since many nurses are recommending this book.... hope for the explanations of other rn out there!!! thanks!!!

and one more thing... male pt doesnt want a male (gay or not gay) nurse to do catheterization on them... hahahhaah!!! ohh men!!!! hahahhaha

i just happened to scan some of the pages of saunders comprehensive review for rn nclex exam and it just made me confused!! on page 187 box 17.3, it is said that 1 grain is equal to 60 mg.... but what confuses me is that below it says 15 grains is equal to 1000 mg... no matter what calculation i do... i just cant seem to get the answer 1000mg when i multiply 15grains and 60 mg... maybe someone here knows the explanation... thanks!!

i think this is the best post i'd ever seen here!!! thanks!!!!!!!

Thank you daytonite, your words are well taken!! Thanks again!

Well actually, there was really no patient. I just happen to ask this question because when I was scanning my nursing diagnosis handbook, I realized that there was no nursing diagnosis specifically saying "hypotension" unlike in the case of fever where you will find " hyperthermia". I ask the question just to make sure that I thought of the right possible nursing diagnosis that I can consider whenever I encountered a patient with hpn. I would like to thank you because I know that you only want to help me to understand fully the subject matter. I hope that you still help me the nxt time... Thank you so much.. Keep up the good work!

Thanks alot!! It was a great help!