I want to clarify a question about IV infusions and I hope this makes sense!
Scenario: I have a patient that is on an already established insulin infusion (I have never set one up myself and cannot locate the policy/procedure anywhere online!)..this patient is getting blood sugars taken q1h and insulin titrated per sliding scale. I notice the insulin infusion is running into a peripheral site with a dual lumen attachment. Lumen#1 - portless tubing insulin via pump. Lumen#2 - KCL40-D51/2NS at 100ml/hr via pump. The patient is having nausea and has PRN zofran IV ordered. Can I use the KCL IV fluid line to run the zofran through? Does the peripheral dual lumen attachment prevent any mixing of meds? In other words, would I still need to look up y-site compatibility even though the zofran technically goes through a seperate lumen? (But same peripheral site)
Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!
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Hi there member of allnurses,
I want to clarify a question about IV infusions and I hope this makes sense!
Scenario: I have a patient that is on an already established insulin infusion (I have never set one up myself and cannot locate the policy/procedure anywhere online!)..this patient is getting blood sugars taken q1h and insulin titrated per sliding scale. I notice the insulin infusion is running into a peripheral site with a dual lumen attachment. Lumen#1 - portless tubing insulin via pump. Lumen#2 - KCL40-D51/2NS at 100ml/hr via pump. The patient is having nausea and has PRN zofran IV ordered. Can I use the KCL IV fluid line to run the zofran through? Does the peripheral dual lumen attachment prevent any mixing of meds? In other words, would I still need to look up y-site compatibility even though the zofran technically goes through a seperate lumen? (But same peripheral site)
Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!