UTI and sepsis question.

According to this website http://216.239.37.104/search?q=cache:JtYm9uo50ooJ:www.vh.org/adult/provider/familymedicine/FPHandbook/Chapter10/05-10.html+why+are+UTIs+at+risk+for+sepsis%3F&hl=en&ie=UTF-8

"UTIs are a common cause of sepsis in the elderly."

The only rationale that I can think of is that those with UTIs are often on IV meds and IV insertion automatically increases the risk of introduction of bacteria into the blood stream.

Is there any other rationale as to how/why sepsis might occur with those having UTIs?

TIA :stone

Sepsis from UTI has NOTHING to do with IV access. The sepsis from a UTI can and frequently does occur before the patient is ever in a hospital setting. Anytime there is an infection in the body there is potential for sepsis which increases if the patient has any immunologic deficit. Try doing a medline search on urosepsis to find out the pathophysiology.

Just an additional thought ...

Infection in the elderly often presents with confusion/change in mental status as the primary symptom, not fever, etc. as would be more likely in a younger adult. This change in mental status is often overlooked, so it could be that by the time infections are treated they have progressed further.

The elderly are prone to UTIs for many reasons, including decreased mobility, greater likelihood of poor nutritional status, and urinary retention.