Question about MAC and the Meyer Overton Rule
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I think my brain is turning to mush, I have been reviewing my MAC lecture and cannot quite put the concept together. I am sure someone can help
My understanding is that Meyer-Overton Rule says: Anesthetic potency correlates directly with lipid solubility.
MAC measures anesthetic potency. The MAC value is inversely proportional to its potency.
So when we say Methoxyflurane is the most potent inhalational agent we are talking about this in terms of solubility in the blood (blood:gas partition coefficient) and insolubility in lipid?
So if I look at Methoxyflurane and correlate it with the Meyer-overton Rule it is saying that it has low potency because it is not very lipid soluble?
I am confused because I would think that if I go by the Meyer-overtin theory then Methoxyflurane would have low potency and desflurane would have high potency due to its high solubility in lipid.
Where am I getting screwed up here?