Are Enn

thanks for the comments. some things I have read and will answer: I am unsure of admitting diagnosis. based on looks, age would be 70s-80s. I am on a general medical floor, so things like lactic acd and ABGs are rarely ever drawn, unless they are initially drawn in the ER before admission. even if a lactic acid was drawn, I doubt the coworker had that value on the tip of his brain and was able to relay it to the physician. besides what was present in the foley bag, which looked appropriate, I know nothing about the output. the physician did not ask anything about 24 hour I&Os. baseline BP seemed to be 130s/80s. I know infectious disease was on consult. would any of you had called infectious disease because of those vitals and newly returned positive prelim blood cultures before calling the admitting physician? and can somebody explain the difference between edema and third spacing?

prelim BC = gram positive cocci pt had foley - by the looks of it, appropriate output was in the bag; appeared to be clear, yellow urine afrebrile; pulse ox was fine no EKG ordered, so unsure of rhythm, but I was told it was regular based off coworkers assessment rest of labs I am unsure of the physician who took a look at the pt and ordered the bolus was not the attending. it was in the middle of the night and the attending ordered the hospitalist to take a look at the pt. besides the basic information, the only other information relayed to the hospitalist was the positive BC.

NS 500 cc bolus run at 999cc/hr. No laxis. Only meds administered were IV lopressor and hydralazine.

this is one of the few doctors i know who is extremely nice and easy to talk to. I have had no problems in the past asking him several medical related questions. he, for the most part, has been able to answer all my questions to my liking. he completely blew me off with this question, however. it is driving my crazy because I have absolutely no idea why he did what he did and I would love to know.

a coworker had a pt who had BP of 220s/120s and pulse of 120-130ish. prelim blood cultures also recently came back positive. when I asked the doctor, who was at the beside, the reasoning behind the bolus, despite the high BP, he mumbled something about bactermia and said, "it's too complicated to explain." IV Lopressor and hydralazine was also administered. anybody have an insight into this?