nurse2289

That was my thinking to, this was an aprn giving the order. At the previous facility I worked we ALWAYS gave long acting unless levels were under 70. Furthermore we always held SSI if patients glucose indicated it if they had been having changes in there levels through the day as in the example above. The MD there may have decreased the amount of long acting insulin if we had increased the dose on admission or just started them on it as I worked on a stroke unit which caused increase in glucose after stroke which I was taught in nursing school infection increased glucose levels also, as the example above states. But this APRN says infection would make your sugar more labile or easily altered. I'd never been taught that so just trying to understand his perspective.

*patient had levemir 30 units ordered and SSI. At 2100 pt fsbs indicated patient should get 8 units regular SSI in addition to levemir 30 units. Pts blood glucose bottomed out that night. The next night fsbs indicated another 8 units SSI should be given. Patient has active infection. So MD on call ordered to give SSI as ordered and hold levemir, at another facility we would have done just the opposite or decreased both doses. Can anyone explain the rationale behind this to me?.

I don't disagree with you on that but this situation was very specific. Patient asked for results of a test, they were given to the patient, cut and dry. I'm not saying one way or another if it was wrong or right but just asking for my own knowledge later on in my career.

Same visitor. Dr and day shift RN vouched for the verbal consent they obtained. I was just wondering if it was considered consent since the patient asked about it with visit in the room.

Same visitor. The Dr and day shift RN vouched patient gave consent for her to be in the room while discussing her test results.

I currently work in a hospital on night shift. I have a coworker who was fired for a HIPPA violation. I don't know that I think it was justified and I'm curious if it was a true HIPPA violation. Earlier in the day the patient was in the room with a family member. The doctor and day shift RN both obtained verbal consent from the patient to discuss the patients medical treatments. On night shift the patient was in the room with the family member and the night shift RN came in to the room. The PATIENT asked the NURSE the results of a test taken. The nurse answered the patient and the patient reported this as a HIPPA violation. The family member was in the room but I was under the impression since the patient asked the nurse with the mother in the room this was implied or inferred consent. What are your thoughts?